Cmat Mats Online preparation model question paper for BBA MBA Management

CMAT MATS Model questions answer paper. CMAT MATS Management Admission Test Online Preparation Model Question Answer collection for the Management Study. For BBA, BBS, MBA, MBS & various other management courses Entrance preparation CMAT MATS question papers with syllabus are given below.

CMAT Central Management Admission Test or Common Management Admission Test & MATS Management Aptitude Test Examination Top Model Questions & Paper details. Please read the following instructions carefully before you start answering the questions.

The test carries a full marks of 100 and it must be completed within 90 minutes.

Test Contents: There are 100 test items. The test covers five sections. The details of the test are as follows:

Test Section Number of Questions of CMAT Exam Preparation

1. Verbal Ability – 20
2. Quantitative Ability – 20
3. Logical Reasoning – 20
4. General Awareness – 20
5. Business and Economics – 20

How to Answer the Questions?

Example 1:

Direction: Fill in the blank with the word which best fits in with the meaning of the following sentences.

Question: The Chair is to be put in the …………………. of the room.

a) middle b) centre c) central d) mid

Answer: Indicate your answer on the Answer Sheet by darkening the correct answer choice (b) as show below:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

In case of wrong marking you may cross ( × ) the wrongly marked box and darken another box.

If you feel that the answer options provided are wrong you should mention at the bottom of the Answer Sheet.

OTHER IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

Please detach the Answer Sheet from the Questions paper.

Write your Roll Number on the Answer Sheet, Do not write anything else on the Answer Sheet. If you need to do rough work use any space available on the Question paper only.

Time yourself as you work on each section so that you complete the test within 90 minutes.

Each set of questions contains Directions. Read those directions carefully before answering the questions.

Try answering all questions. There is no negative marking for wrong answer.

Section – I: Verbal Ability

Direction: In the following questions, choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the capitalized word.

1. BRIEF
   a) Limited b) Small c) Little d) Short
2. DISTANT
   a) Far b) Removed c) Reserved d) Separate
3. FAKE
   a) Original b) Imitation c) Trustworthy d) Loyal
4. ALERT
   a) Energetic b) Observant c) Intelligent d) Watchful
   Directions: Select the word which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the word in capital letters.
5. ARTIFICIAL
   a) Red b) Natural c) Truthful d) Solid
6. EXPAND
   a) Condense b) Convert c) Congest d) Conclude
7. BUSY
   a) Occupied b) Engrossed c) Relaxed d) Engaged
8. FRESH
   a) Faulty b) Sluggish c) Disgraceful d) Stale
   Directions: Select the proper proposition to fill in the blanks in the following questions:
9. The dog barked……. the stranger.
   a) upon b) over c) at d) to
10. You must bear …… my weakness.
    a) up b) with c) in d) for
11. A blind man is no judge…… colours.
    a) to b) for c) in d) of
12. My friend is not accustomed …….drinking.
    a) with b) in c) to d) for
    Directions: In the questions given below out of four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given word/sentence.
13. List of the business or subjects to be considered at a meeting.
    a) Agenda b) Time table c) Plan d) Schedule

14. Leave or remove from a place considered dangerous.
    a) Evade b) Evacuate c) Avoid d) Exterminate
15. One who possesses many talents.
    a) Gifted b) Nubile c) Exceptional d) Versatile
16. Something that will last for ever.
    a) Celestial b) Godly c) Eternal d) Repetitive
    Direction: The passage given below s followed by questions based on its contents. After reading the
    passage, choose the best answer to each question.
    At this stage of civilization, when many nations are brought in to close and vital contact for good and evil, it is
    essential, as never before, that their gross ignorance of one another should be diminished, that they should
    begin to understand a little of one another’s historical experience and resulting mentality. It is the fault of the
    Englishmen to expect the people of other countries to react as they do, to political and international
    situations. Their genuine goodwill and good intentions are often brought to nothing, because they expect
    other people to be like us. This would be corrected if they knew the history, not necessarily in detail but in
    broad outlines, of the social and political conditions which have given to each nation its present character.
17. According to the author of ‘Mentality’ of a nation is mainly the product of its
    a) history b) international position
    c) politics d) present character
18. The need for a greater understanding between nations
    a) was always there b) is no longer there
    c) is more today than ever before d) will always be there
19. The character of a nation is the result of its
    a) mentality b) cultural heritage
    c) gross ignorance d) socio-cultural conditions
20. According to the author his countrymen should
    a) read the story of other nations
    b) have a better understanding of other nations
    c) not react to other actions
    d) have vital contacts with other nations

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Section – II: Quantitative Ability

Direction: Find the best answer for the questions given below.

1. A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%?
   a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
2. Which of the following number is a perfect square?
3. a) 7799 b) 7755 c) 7766 d) 7744
4. If the digits of the numbers 5 7 2 6 4 8 9 are arranged in ascending order, how many digits will remain at the same position?
   a) None b) One c) Two d) Three
5. If 6 is 24% of a number, what is 40% of the same number?
   a) 8 b) 10 c) 15 d) 20
6. A salary of an officer being increased by 10% every year becomes Rs 48400 in the third year. What was his original salary?
   a) Rs 45000 b) Rs 44000 c) Rs 42000 d) Rs 40000
7. 60 is 80% of which number?
   a) 60 b) 72 c) 75 d) 80
8. When 10,000 is increased by 0.1%, we get
   a) 10001 b) 10010 c) 10100 d) 11000
9. Which of the following numbers is divisible by 12 but not by 8?
   a) 72 b) 88 c) 108 d) 120
10. The average of x and y is 40. If z = 10, what is the average of x, y and z?
    a) 16.6 b) 20 c) 25 d) 30
11. What is the 0.5 % of 100,000?
    a) 0.05 b) 0.50 c) 50 d) 500
12. If a sum of money is divided equally among n children, each child will receive Rs 60. If another child is added to the group, then when the sum is divided equally among all children, each child will receive a Rs 50 share. What is the sum of money?
    a) Rs 100 b) Rs 120 c) Rs 300 d) Rs 400
13. A vendor bought bananas at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%?
    a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
14. If there are 5 routes for traveling between two places A and B, how many option are there for a person to travel from A to B and return back?
    a) 5 b) 10 c) 9 d) 25
15. A student has an average of 86 in three examinations. What grade must he/she receive on his/her next test to raise his/her average to 88?
    a) 94 b) 90 c) 92 d) 100
16. If 8x + 4 = 32, then 2x – 1 = ?
    a) 9 b) 8 c) 6 d) 5
17. The simplest interest on Rs 600 at 6% for six months is
    a) Rs 218 b) Rs 21.80 c) Rs 36 d) 18
    Direction: In the questions 37 to 40, find the odd one out.
18. 4, 8, 12, 18, 36, 54, 108
    a) 8 b) 12 c) 18 d) 36
19. 10, 25, 45, 54, 60, 75, 80
    a) 10 b) 45 c) 54 d) 75
20. 3, 5, 11, 14, 17, 21
    a) 21 b) 17 c) 14 d) 3
21. 1, 4, 9, 16, 23, 25, 36
    a) 9 b) 23 c) 25 d) 36

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Section – III: Logical Reasoning

Direction: Select the pair of words which best expresses the relationship similar to that expressed in the pair in bold letters.

41. Library : Books ::
    a) School : Student b) CDO : Criminal
    c) Forest : Trees d) Gentlemen : Meeting
42. Sugar : Sweet ::
    a) Ice : Cold b) Butter : Cow
    c) Attack : Fail d) Wine : Grapes
43. Biratnagar : Morang ::
    a) Kathmandu : Nepal b) Butwal : Bhairahawa
    c) Birgunj : Parsa d) Bharatpur : Ratnanagar
44. Rent : Land ::
    a) Wages : Bonuses b) Interest : Capital
    c) Share : Profit d) Income : Salary
45. Monday : Tuesday ::
    a) January ; February: b) Working day : Holiday
    c) December : Sunday d) Winter : Summer
46. Ink : Paper ::
    a) Door : Handle b) Dog : Tail
    c) Chalk : Blackboard d) Speak : Sing
47. Doctor : Lawyer ::
    a) Client : Illness b) Patient : Medicine
    c) Medicine : Fee d) Patient : Client
48. Bee : Hive ::
    a) People : Meeting b) River : Stream
    c) Mouse : Hole d) Fry : Cook
    Direction: Choose the word which is least like other words in a group.
49. a) Research scholar b) Lecturer
    c) Headmaster d) Principal
50. a) 221 b) 333 c) 556 d) 777
51. a) Tansen b) Dhangadi c) Nepalgunj d) Nagarkot
52. a) Half b) Quarter c) One-third d) Six
53. a) London b) New York c) Colombo d) Jakarta
54. a) 91 b) 112 c) 135 d) 154
55. a) Bagful b) Careful c) Skilful d) Hopeful
    Direction: For each question, find the best answer.
56. The parts of human body are
    a. Waist b. Belly c. Chest d. Head
    e. Neck f. Foot
    Starting from the foot as we go up, the correct order of parts in a human body is:
    a) f, a, b, c, e, d b) f, a, c, b, d, e
    c) f, c, a, e, b, d d) f, a, e, b, c, d
57. If 6145 stands for FADE and 9451 stands for IDEA, what does 8978 stand for?
    a) THIS b) NIGH c) HIGH d) THAT
58. If BAD is coded as YZW and FIGHT is coded as URTSG, then HIGH will be coded as
    a) PRSP b) TRST c) RSTR d) SRTS
59. If 2 × 3 = 812, and 4 × 5 = 1620 then 6 × 7 =
    a) 6677 b) 6767 c) 2428 d) 2824
60. If LN NP QS DF stands for MORE, then SU QS TV SU GI stands for
    a) FRUIT b) FAITH c) TRUTH d) TREES

Section – IV: General Awareness

Direction: In each of the following question, select the best answer choice.

61. Where is the headquarter of UNESCO?
    a) New York b) New Delhi
    c) Nairobi d) Paris
62. Highest speed of wind could be expected in case of
    a) Strong breeze b) Strong storm
    c) Hurricane d) Strong gale
63. The longest river in the world is
    a) Indus b) Nile c) Ganga d) Amazon
64. Which of the following airlines does not have regular passenger flights to Kathmandu?
    a) JAL b) Korean Air
    c) Bangladesh Biman d) Qatar Airways
65. Which of the following name is associated with aircraft?
    a) Marconi b) Peter Paul
    c) Wright brothers d) James Watt
66. A web sites main page is called as
    a) Website page b) Home page
    c) Search page d) Browser page
67. Mona Lisa is known for
    a) Dancing b) Cooking c) Rafting d) Painting
68. Data that is copied from application is stored in the
    a) RAM b) Prompt c) Clipboard d) CPU
69. Which among the following is the most common source of viruses to the hard disk of your
    computer?
    a) Incoming Email b) Outgoing Email
    c) CDROM d) Websites
70. Bulls and bears are the terms associated with
    a) Parliamentary affairs b) Stock exchange
    c) Bull fights d) Racing
71. With which of the following items is the trade name CG Group of Industries associated?
    a) Cement b) Blades c) Instant noodles d) Tractors
72. Tikapur is on the banks of river
    a) Karnali b) Mahakali c) Gandaki d) Koshi
73. The first man to set foot on the moon was
    a) Robert Crippen b) Alexei Leonov
    c) Yuri Gagarin d) Neil Armstrong
74. Which of the following is not a Himalayan river?
    a) Trishuli b) Bagmati c) Kali Gandaki d) Koshi
75. Siesmology refers to
    a) Earthquakes b) Plants c) Humidity d) Planets
76. Oslo is the capital of
    a) Norway b) Canada c) Yaman d) Sweden
77. Silver fish is
    a) A fish b) An insect
    c) A term used in politics d) A fish made of silver
78. Which of the following place is not on the direct bus route from Bharatpur to Janakpur?
    a) Birgunj b) Hetauda c) Nijgarh d) Bardibas
79. Swargadwari Temple is situated in
    a) Surkhet b) Jajarkot c) Dang d) Pyuthan
80. Mahabharata’ was written by
    a) Ved Vyas b) Manu c) Surdas d) Tulsidas

Section – V: Business and Economics

Direction: For each of the questions below, select the best of the answer choices given.

81. What is the full form of WTO?
    a) World Travel Organization b) Wimbledon Tennis Office
    c) World Trade Organization d) Women Travel Organization
82. Which of the following can be considered as seasonal industry?
    a) Cement b) Sugar c) Automobile d) Power
83. Which of the following is Nepal’s largest trading partner?
    a) USA b) Japan c) China d) India
84. Cheap money policy is adopted generally during
    a) Boom b) Hyper inflation c) Inflation d) Recession
85. Which of the following will not be considered investment?
    a) Piling of inventories on a trader’s shelf
    b) The building of a school
    c) Construction of a house
    d) Purchase of 100 shares of Standard Chartered Bank
86. The regulatory authority for stock markets in Nepal is
    a) Nepal Stock Exchange b) Nepal Rastra Bank
    c) Ministry of Finance d) Company Registrar’s Office
87. Profit margins are the lowest in
    a) Absolute monopoly b) Monopolistic competition
    c) Oligopolistic competition d) Perfect competition
88. Which of the following payment instruments is known as plastic money?
    a) Bearer cheques b) Demand drafts
    c) Credit cards d) Gift cheques
89. VAT is a/an
    a) Income tax b) Sales Tax c) Custom Duty d) Travel Tax
90. Globalization refers to:
    a) Lower incomes worldwide
    b) Less foreign trade and investment
    c) Global warming and their effects
    d) A more integrated and interdependent world
91. Whose signatures are found on thousand rupee note of Nepal
    a) Minister of Finance b) Governor, NRB
    c) Prime Minister d) Secretary, Ministry of Finance
92. Accounting is the process of matching:
    a) Benefits and costs b) Revenue and costs
    c) Cash inflows and outflows d) Potential and real performance
93. Which of the following is not a characteristic of monopoly?
    a) Product differentiation b) Only one producer
    c) Large profit margins d) Inefficiencies
94. What is SWOT analysis?
    a) Swift Work of Tribes
    b) Sustainable Work of Transport
    c) Strength, Opportunity, Weakness and Threat
    d) Strength, Weakness, Opportunity and Threat
95. Which of the following ratio indicates the financial risk of a firm?
    a) Market yield b) Dividend cover
    c) Debt equity ratio d) Net profit margin
96. Net worth means
    a) Paid up capital + free reserves
    b) Paid up capital
    c) Paid up capital – accumulated losses
    d) Paid up capital + free reserves – accumulated losses
97. Which of the following is an unfavourable condition for economic development?
    a) Low interest rate b) Low inflation rate
    c) High industrial production d) a) & b)
98. Risk that is associated with a stock is usually measured in terms of
    a) Beta b) Variance c) Standard Deviation d) Total returns
99. Which of the following districts of Nepal is the largest producer of coffee?
    a) Surkhet b) Gulmi c) Bhaktapur d) Ilam
100. Which country is known as the world’s sugar bowl
     a) Cuba b) China c) USA d) India

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